A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would then NOT be considered non-Mendelian?

A gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent

A gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters

A gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures

A gene derived solely from maternal inheritance

A gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells

A gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters.

Explanation:

Gregor Mendel through his research on pea plants, came up with three laws which are:

The Law of Segregation of genes: Each inherited trait is defined by a pair of gene alleles. Genes are randomly separated to the sex cells so that sex cells contain only one allele of the pair. The Law of Dominance: An organism with alternate forms of a gene will express the form that is dominant. The Law of Independent Assortment: Genes for different traits are sorted separately from one another so that the inheritance of one trait is not dependent on the inheritance of another.

In His work, he established the basic patterns of inheritance and it wasn't until after his death that sex linked inheritance patterns were identified.

He believed that a pair of genes called alleles, were transmitted, each allele from one parent and both alleles transmitted from each parent constituted the complete pair in the offspring.

However, if different variants of the same gene were inherited from both parents, the dominant gene is expressed in the offspring (phenotype).

Since the basis of his work established genes being equally transmitted by both parents to offspring, the variations being due to dominance, genes transmitted from mother to son and from father to daughter, follows the Mendelian pattern of inheritance.