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14 July, 00:12

If an individual homozygous dominant for widow's peak has a child with an individual heterozygous for widow's peak, what is the chance that the child will have a widow's peak?

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  1. 14 July, 04:08
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    100%

    Explanation:

    Let PP represent homozygous dominant trait for widow's peak &

    Let Pp represent an individual heterozygous for widow's peak.

    If both traits cross together; the chance that the child will have a widow's peak = ?

    i. e PP * Pp

    | P | P

    P | PP | PP

    p | Pp | Pp

    The progeny are: (PP, PP, Pp, Pp)

    When a trait is dominant, only one allele is required for the trait to be observed. A dominant allele will mask a recessive allele, if present.

    From our question, one parent is homozygous dominant (PP) and the other is heterozygous (Pp) : therefore all their offspring will be two homozygous dominant (PP) and two heterozygous (Pp) and they will all possess a widow's peak.

    Therefore, the chance that a child will have a widow's peak = 100%
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