Ask Question
8 September, 04:42

Suppose that Spain has a Gini coefficient of 0.5, France has a Gini coefficient of 0.4, and Germany has a Gini coefficient of 0.3. Based on this information, which of the following statements about income inequality in the three countries are correct? Check all that apply. The ratio of the total income of the lowest quintile of income distribution to the total income of the highest quintile of income distribution is higher in France than in Germany. The lowest quintile of Spain's income distribution earns a lower percentage of the aggregate Spanish income than the lowest quintile of France's income distribution does of the aggregate French income. The ratio of the total income of the lowest quintile of income distribution to the total income of the highest quintile of income distribution is higher in Spain than in Germany. France has a higher degree of income inequality than Germany but lower than Spain. Germany has a higher degree of income inequality than France or Spain.

+1
Answers (1)
  1. 8 September, 06:10
    0
    France has a higher degree of income inequality than Germany but lower than Spain.

    Explanation:

    The Gini Coefficient: measures the economic inequality in a country's economy, by measuring income distribution.

    The smaller the Gini Coefficient, the lesser income inequality in a country, a 0 coefficient means perfect equality while 1 represents perfect inequality.

    France's inequality is higher than Germany's due to higher Gini coefficient, but lower than Spain's inequality.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Suppose that Spain has a Gini coefficient of 0.5, France has a Gini coefficient of 0.4, and Germany has a Gini coefficient of 0.3. Based on ...” in 📘 Business if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers