If you find a positive relationship between corruption and per capita GDP, how would you rationalize this outcome?

The mistake could be as Transparency International publish the index "backwards" being zero highly corrup nation while 10 a nation with low level of corruption. This could make a person to see the relationship as positive but it isn't. a higher GDP is consistent with a a governement with low levels of corruption.

Higher GDP per capita countries has lower levels of corruptions. thus a higher value in the index.