Substances X and Y are both nonpolar. If the volatility of X is higher than that of Y, what is the best explanation? X's molecules experience stronger dipole-dipole forces than Y's molecules. Y's molecules experience stronger dipole-dipole forces than X's molecules. X's molecules experience stronger London dispersion forces than Y's molecules. Y's molecules experience stronger London dispersion forces than X's molecules.

Question

Chemistry

Adyson Mahoney

30 March, 23:07

Substances X and Y are both nonpolar. If the volatility of X is higher than that of Y, what is the best explanation? X's molecules experience stronger dipole-dipole forces than Y's molecules. Y's molecules experience stronger dipole-dipole forces than X's molecules. X's molecules experience stronger London dispersion forces than Y's molecules. Y's molecules experience stronger London dispersion forces than X's molecules.

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Brett Hurley · Answer 1

Substances X and Y are both non polar. If the volatility of X is higher than that of Y, then Y's molecules experience stronger London dispersion forces than X's molecules is the best explanation.

Answer: Y's molecules experience stronger London dispersion forces than X's molecules.

Explanation:

The non polar molecules are bonded by London dispersion force which are the weakest among the other inter-molecular forces. Even though these are the weakest one, this force is sufficient to bind non polar molecules.

The stronger the London dispersion forces, the stronger will be the binding energy of non polar molecules. The volatility is the tendency to get vaporised at room temperature.

So, it is given that X molecules has high volatility. It means that the bond in X molecules can be broken easily compared to the bond strength of Y molecules. This indicates that the molecule of Y experiences stronger London dispersion force than X molecules.