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14 September, 21:24

Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period.

a. True

b. False

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  1. 15 September, 01:06
    0
    The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "False." Shakespeare's 1 is classified as Middle 1 because it so closely resembles the 1 of the medieval period. The statement that is shown above is not true to Shakespeare's 1.
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