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7 November, 00:26

Why were peasants the only ones who danced the walzer until the early eighteenth century?

A. Peasants did not socialize with members of the upper class.

B. People with low social status could not afford other forms of recreation.

C. The dance was considered too bad-mannered for refined people.

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  1. 7 November, 03:11
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    Technically this has two answers. Peasants did not socialize with members of the upper class and therefore high society would not have been introduced to the dance until later in the century. However, the real true answer is because the dance was considered to be too bad mannered for refined people. Those of high society had their own dances and would almost never do anything that lower class people would do, but with this dance it was different. The dance required the couple to face each other in a closed position and they had to physically touch for the entire dance. This was simply not allowed for the elite because it was scandalous that unwedded men and women would ever be in such a position to resemble an intimate embrace.
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