How does Shakespeare use foreshadowing in Macbeth?

1. By making Lady Macbeth be the first to suggest assassinating Duncan in Act I, he suggests that she will be the one who actually does the deed in Act II.

2. By having the witches make a second round of predictions in Act IV, he suggests how Macbeth will actually be defeated in Act V.

3. By depicting the way Malcolm upsets Macduff by claiming to be selfish and cruel in Act IV, he suggests the flaws that will actually be revealed when Malcolm takes the crown in Act V.

4. By showing the witches telling Banquo that his sons will be kings in Act I, he suggests that Banquo will conspire with Macbeth to kill Duncan in Act II.

Question

English

Amaya Stokes

7 March, 06:01

How does Shakespeare use foreshadowing in Macbeth?

1. By making Lady Macbeth be the first to suggest assassinating Duncan in Act I, he suggests that she will be the one who actually does the deed in Act II.

2. By having the witches make a second round of predictions in Act IV, he suggests how Macbeth will actually be defeated in Act V.

3. By depicting the way Malcolm upsets Macduff by claiming to be selfish and cruel in Act IV, he suggests the flaws that will actually be revealed when Malcolm takes the crown in Act V.

4. By showing the witches telling Banquo that his sons will be kings in Act I, he suggests that Banquo will conspire with Macbeth to kill Duncan in Act II.

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Cannon Harding · Answer 1

The correct answer is 2. By having the witches make a second round of predictions in Act IV, he suggests how Macbeth will actually be defeated in Act V.

None of the other options actually happened in the play, which is why all of them are incorrect. However, in number 2, the witches did make a prediction that Macbeth will be defeated, and he really was at the end of the play. He got what he deserved for being too ambitious and killing people.