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7 January, 17:05

Why do you think shakespeare chose to use apostrophe rather than simply describe a menacing dagger?

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  1. 7 January, 18:23
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    By having Macbeth directly address the dagger - - rather than just describing it - - he highlights Macbeth's unsteady mental state.

    It is one thing for Shakespeare to describe a dagger; but to have Macbeth speak to it, while recognizing it is not physically there - - that's something else entirely. Thus, the apostrophe best conveys Macbeth's internal battle as doubt, fear, and willpower all exist in him at once.
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