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26 June, 03:35

People from all three eastern regions (new england, southeastern, midlands) migrated into the midwest, great plains and western united states. why is there a relatively uniform form of english (dialect) spoken across this enormous area?

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  1. 26 June, 04:13
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    This is because in the "U. S. A.", people in all the regions in the U. S. A. historically migrated throughout an "entire land mass" (essentially); and this "land mass" tends to be more "homogeneous" (as opposed to "British English" speakers; who speak with different dialects, accents). Note that the United Kingdom, including Great Britain, is further isolated from the U. S. A.-by a huge ocean - than the "relatively more homogeneous physical region" / and thus the "relatively more linguistic region".
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