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2 June, 04:13

Which of the following arguments serves to counter the notion that European culture is inherently more suited to industry and technology? a) In 1750, core areas of Europe and Asia enjoyed similar levels of economic development. b) Non-European civilizations have made valuable contributions to world history in music and cuisine. c) Europe's early industrialization relied almost exclusively on slave labor from Africa. d) Europeans today lag far behind the United States in terms of industry and technology.

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  1. 2 June, 06:00
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    A. Until about 1750, core areas of Europe India and China enjoyed similar levels of economic development

    Explanation:

    The notion that European culture is inherently more developed reflects and old ethnocentric belief that has been probed several times to be wrong.

    Europeans lacked much of the development and borrowed it from other regions of the world.

    For example, Chinese inventions (paper, print, silk) already formed part of the culture in Asia and India also showed important advances in science and technology.

    The notion of Europeans being racially or naturally superior to other peoples has historically been a myth.

    Until around 1750, both India and China had a quality of life similar to Europeans and perhaps together they surpassed it already in our present time.
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