How does the bill of rights today differ than their original intent in 1791

Explanation: The declaration of rights of today differs from its original intention in 1791, in that in the present, the universal prevails, that is to say, what is stated there is reflected in a general way, for all people, countries, and so on. And not for certain sectors as used to happen with the 1791 declaration of rights, where the particular character is prioritized, since it was specially formulated to institutional or private sectors.

It's better than back then