History

Neveah Mays

14 April, 01:08

Why did the declaration of rights of man only refer to men?

+4

Answers (1)

Know the Answer?

Not Sure About the Answer?

Find an answer to your question ✅ “Why did the declaration of rights of man only refer to men? ...” in 📘 History if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.

Search for Other Answers

You Might be Interested in

What did the Indian Territory and the territory of New Mexico have in common during the Civil War

What happened at the Berlin West Africa Conference? A. Great Britain and Germany met to divide the African continent for colonization. B. The European nations withdrew from colonization in Africa. C.

What economic situation did World War II create on the home front?

How did colonisation affect african culture

According to the 4th pillar of islam, during the holy month of ramadan muslims must

New Questions in History

If you were on the Trail in 1850, what seven supplies would you have taken with you?

What program of active government intervention addressed the great depression and how did it avert a social revolution in the U. S.

How do entitlements impact expenditures?

Why do you think the leaders who followed the Macedonian emperors were unable to maintain the gains and prosperity they had achieved?

Why is the eagle on the top of the tree?