How was Bismarck able to defeat France?
a. Bismarck had superior weapons and technology.
c. France had an inferior naval fleet.
b. Bismarck had more man power.
d. Bismarck used deception to win allies against France.
Answers (1)
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “How was Bismarck able to defeat France? a. Bismarck had superior weapons and technology. c. France had an inferior naval fleet. b. Bismarck ...” in 📘 History if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers
You Might be Interested in
What is the pomestie system?
Answers (1)
How does the WTO differ from the GATT
Answers (1)
Did the Mediterranean Sea have negative effects on Rome and its development?
Answers (1)
How did The Greek military compare to the Persian military
Answers (1)
Which statement was part of an initial draft of the declaration of independence but not part of the final version of the declaratoin of independence
Answers (1)
New Questions in History
Explain, in your own words, your thoughts about the possible meaning or meanings behind the story of Pandora
Answers (2)
Which of the following does not describe much of Europe at the end of World War II? A. Many people were displaced and much of Europe lay in ruins. B. Nuclear blasts had destroyed European lives and land. C.
Answers (1)
Writing the importantance of president George Washington farewell address why was it important
Answers (1)
How can societies reduce the use of fossil fuels?
Answers (2)
What does this passage mean from the Declaration of Independence - "He had kept among us, in times of peace, Standing Armies without the Consent of our legislatures"
Answers (1)