Ask Question
7 June, 09:43

Consider a data set that has no mode. Which measure of variation is greater, the range or the interquartile range? Explain your reasoning.

+4
Answers (1)
  1. 7 June, 10:54
    0
    It would be based on the set of numbers you have, but in most cases it is the interquartile range, because the mode is usually closer to the median. This leaves the interquartile range as a larger number.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Consider a data set that has no mode. Which measure of variation is greater, the range or the interquartile range? Explain your reasoning. ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers