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26 November, 15:39

Is it true that since sin^2 (x) + cos^2 (x) = 1, then sin (x) + cos (x) = 1? Explain

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  1. 26 November, 17:28
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    No it is not true because the 2 expressions are not equal nor is sin^2 x + cos^2 x equal to the square of sin x + cos x.
  2. 26 November, 19:25
    0
    No.

    An easy counterexample is sin (30°) + cos (30°) which is more than 1.
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