Which of the following explains why f (x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply

Question

Mathematics

Brenda Ayers

7 June, 18:10

Which of the following explains why f (x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply

+3

Answers (1)

Know the Answer?

Joey Hayden · Answer 1

The y intercept is the y value when x=0. in a logarithm function, the argument, which is 4x in this case, has be to a positive number. 4x can never be 0, so x can never be 0, there is no y intercept.