Ask Question
24 June, 06:15

If p is a positive integer, then p (p+1) (p-1) is always divisible by?

+4
Answers (1)
  1. 24 June, 10:02
    0
    I am not quite sure what the choices are, but the answer to that problem is:

    If p is a positive integer, then p (p+1) (p-1) is always divisible by "an even number".

    The explanation to this is that whatever number you input to that equation, the answer will always be an even number. This is due to the expression p (p+1) (p-1) which always result in a even product.

    For example if p=3, then (p+1) (p-1) becomes (4) (2) giving you a even number.

    And if for example if p=2, then (p+1) (p-1) becomes (3) (1) which gives an odd product, but we still have to multiply this with p therefore 2*3 = 6 which is even product. The outcome is always even number.

    Answer: From the choices, select the even number
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “If p is a positive integer, then p (p+1) (p-1) is always divisible by? ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers