True or false: for any function, x=f^-1 (y), then y=f (x)

YES

We can work out the inverse using Algebra. Put "y" for "f (x) " and solve for x:

The function: f (x) = 2x+3

Put "y" for "f (x) ": y=2x+3

Subtract 3 from both sides:

y-3=2x

Divide both sides by 2:

(y-3) / 2=x

Swap sides: x = (y-3) / 2

Solution (put "f-1 (y) " for "x") : f-1 (y) = (y-3) / 2