Ask Question
31 October, 06:50

Decreasing 40 to 20 is the same as decreasing 40 by one-half of. So, it is a 50% decrease.

+3
Answers (1)
  1. 31 October, 09:39
    0
    Yes it is also a 50% decrease.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Decreasing 40 to 20 is the same as decreasing 40 by one-half of. So, it is a 50% decrease. ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers