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5 April, 07:15

Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent

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Answers (2)
  1. 5 April, 09:25
    0
    No, they are not equivalent

    Step-by-step explanation:

    To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide

    40/1000=0.04

    To make this a percentage multiply it by 100

    Then you get 4%

    4% and 40% are not the same
  2. 5 April, 10:52
    0
    1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%

    so ... yes. It is equivalent.
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