Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent

Question

Mathematics

Christine Saunders

5 April, 07:15

Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent

+5

Answers (2)

Know the Answer?

Jayden Roberts · Answer 1

No, they are not equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide

40/1000=0.04

To make this a percentage multiply it by 100

Then you get 4%

4% and 40% are not the same

Fido · Answer 2

1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%

so ... yes. It is equivalent.