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29 October, 14:10

Determine whether each of these functions from {a, b, c, d} to itself is one-to-one. a) f (a) = b, f (b) = a, f (c) = c, f (d) = d. b) f (a) = b, f (b) = b, f (c) = d, f (d) = c. c) f (a) = d, f (b) = b, f (c) = c, f (d) = d.

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  1. 29 October, 18:04
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    The first one is one-to-one.

    The second one is not one-to-one.

    Third one is not one-to-one.

    The problem:

    Are the following one-to-one from {a, b, c, d} to {a, b, c, d}:

    a)

    f (a) = b

    f (b) = a

    f (c) = c

    f (d) = d

    b)

    f (a) = b

    f (b) = b

    f (c) = d

    f (d) = c

    c)

    f (a) = d

    f (b) = b

    f (c) = c

    f (d) = d

    Step-by-step explanation:

    One-to-one means that a y cannot be hit more than once, but all the y's from the range must be hit.

    So the first one is one-to-one because:

    f (a) = b

    f (b) = a

    f (c) = c

    f (d) = d

    All the elements that got hit are in {a, b, c, d} and all of them were hit.

    The second one is not one-to-one.

    The reason is because f (a) and f (b) both are b.

    Third one is not one-to-one.

    The reason is because f (a) and f (d) are both d.
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