Ask Question
1 June, 09:53

The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is also a function t/f

+1
Answers (2)
  1. 1 June, 10:21
    0
    The Answer is false.

    the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse. Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.
  2. 1 June, 11:26
    0
    False

    Step-by-step explanation:

    The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is not a function, since the graph fails the vertical line test: a vertical line drawn thru the graph intersects it in 2 places (except at (0,0)).
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is also a function t/f ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers