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23 August, 12:51

F (x) = { (1, 4), (2, 3), (5, 8), (4, 7) } Is f^-1 (x) a function and why?

Yes, each element in the range has only one domain value.

Yes, each element in the domain has only one range value.

No, there are only a limited number of ordered pairs and can't be determined.

No, we don't know the original function and therefore can't make the determination.

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Answers (2)
  1. 23 August, 13:21
    0
    a) Yes, each element in the range has only one domain value.

    Step-by-step explanation:

    To be a function a relation between two sets must follow at least one basic condition.

    * All elements of the Domain must have its counterpart into the Range.

    The question asks if an inverse function of this given one is still a function. Let's check it below.

    That's why it's

    a) Yes, each element in the range has only one domain value.
  2. 23 August, 14:08
    0
    Yes, each element in the range has only one domain value
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