Ask Question
30 June, 09:29

Earle says that m

X (-1) is always equal to m

= (-1), for all rational values of m. Is he correct?

+5
Answers (1)
  1. 30 June, 10:03
    0
    No, because M can be any number
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Earle says that m X (-1) is always equal to m = (-1), for all rational values of m. Is he correct? ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers