Ask Question
15 June, 07:10

Can the mean value theorum be applied to the function f (x) = 1/x^2 on the interval [-2, 1]? Explain.

+3
Answers (1)
  1. 15 June, 09:27
    0
    No, it can not be applied.

    Step-by-step explanation:

    f (x) = 1/x²

    f (x) is a polynomial that is not continuous

    As,

    f (x) = 1/0 is undefines

    Secondly, it is not differentiable (i. e. the derivative does not exists on the interval given)

    Derivative of this function

    f' (x) = (1) x^-2

    = - 2x^ (-2-1)

    = - 2x^ (-3)

    = - 2/x³

    = - 2/x³

    f' (0) = - 2/0 is undefined

    Thus, mean value theorem can not be applied.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Can the mean value theorum be applied to the function f (x) = 1/x^2 on the interval [-2, 1]? Explain. ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers