Ask Question
15 June, 23:08

Investing is a game of chance. Suppose there is a 36% chance that a risky stock investment will end up in a total loss of your investment. Because the rewards are so high, you decide to invest in five independent risky stocks. Find the probability that at least one of your five investments becomes a total loss. Round to the nearest ten-thousandth when necessary.

+1
Answers (1)
  1. 16 June, 01:12
    0
    Answer: P (x ≥ 1) = 0.893

    Step-by-step explanation:

    We would assume a binomial distribution for the outcome of the investment. The formula is expressed as

    P (x = r) = nCr * p^r * q^ (n - r)

    Where

    x represent the number of successes.

    p represents the probability of success.

    q = (1 - r) represents the probability of failure.

    n represents the number of trials or sample.

    From the information given,

    p = 36% = 36/100 = 0.36

    q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.36

    q = 0.64

    n = 5

    Therefore,

    P (x ≥ 1) = 1 - P (x = 0)

    P (x = 0) = 5C0 * 0.36^0 * 0.64^ (5 - 0)

    P (x = 0) = 1 * 1 * 0.107

    P (x = 0) = 0.107

    P (x ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.107 = 0.893
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Investing is a game of chance. Suppose there is a 36% chance that a risky stock investment will end up in a total loss of your investment. ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers