Which of the following explains why f (x) = logam

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

Question

Skylar Kirk

16 November, 13:22

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Answers (1)

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Evelin Stevens · Answer 1

There's is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

It's inverse does not have any x-intercepts

Which of the following explains why f (x) = logamdoes not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.