Ask Question
28 August, 04:48

If and (f*g) ' (1) = 6 and g' (1) = - 1, then g (1) =

A. 5

B. - 7

C. 7

D. 5

E. 8

(note: (f*g) ' (1) means the derivitive of f (x) g (x) at x=1)

wow, the answer is 5, but why?

ples show all work and logic (don't just refernce to an online solver)

+2
Answers (1)
  1. 28 August, 05:17
    0
    I think, the answer will be - 7

    We have:

    f (x) = 1 / (x-2)

    g (x)

    Then:

    (fg) (x) = [1 / (x-2) ] (g (x)) = g (x) / (x-2)

    Now; we calculate: (fg) ' (x)

    Remember: (u/v) = (u'v-vu') / v²

    Therefore:

    (fg) ' (x) = [g' (x) * (x-2) - 1*g (x) ] / (x-2) ²

    We know that:

    g' (1) = - 1

    (fg) ' (1) = 6

    Therefore:

    6=[-1 * (1-2) - g (1) ] / (1-2) ²

    6=[1-g (1) ]/1

    6=1-g (1)

    -g (1) = 6-1

    g (1) = - 5

    Answer: B. - 5
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “If and (f*g) ' (1) = 6 and g' (1) = - 1, then g (1) = A. 5 B. - 7 C. 7 D. 5 E. 8 (note: (f*g) ' (1) means the derivitive of f (x) g (x) at ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers