Ask Question
1 April, 13:01

Why do negative reciprocals always have a product of - 1?

+5
Answers (2)
  1. 1 April, 15:10
    0
    No matter what 'x' is, the negative reciprocal of 'x' is - (1/x).

    Now let's multiply them:

    (x) times - (1/x) = - (x/x) = - 1.

    And there you are.

    That's why.
  2. 1 April, 15:44
    0
    For any number x, when we multiply by - 1/x, we get - x/x, or - 1. As we haven't made any assumptions about x (other than x is not equal to zero, in which case x does not have a defined reciprocal), all negative reciprocals have a product of - 1.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Why do negative reciprocals always have a product of - 1? ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers