Ask Question
17 August, 16:02

Why does it takes 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1copy of 1 / 2

+1
Answers (2)
  1. 17 August, 18:21
    0
    Because 1/2 ≠ 1/6.

    We know that 1/6 < 1/2, so we can set up an equation to see how many copies are needed for them to be equal.

    (1/6) x = 1/2

    [ (1/6) x] * 6 = [1/2] * 6

    x = 6/2 = 3

    This equation shows that 1/6 * 3 = 1/2, therefore we need 3 copies of 1/6 to equal 1 copy of 1/2.
  2. 17 August, 19:55
    0
    Because 3 times 1/6 is 3/6 which can be simplified to 1/2
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Why does it takes 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1copy of 1 / 2 ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers