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15 December, 17:04

Did the development of american cities justify jefferson's claim that "when we get piled up in great cities we will become as corrupt as europe"?

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  1. 15 December, 18:53
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    No, it does not.

    The corruption of Europe that Jefferson mentioned above happened because at that time the Government of Europe did not possess check and balances system that they used today. This made government officials could do anything they want without having to be held accountable. It has nothing to do with the development of cities.
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