Ask Question
19 March, 10:54

Why should the government be able to take somebody's property without his or her consent? Give some examples of what you would view as legitimate uses of eminent domain.

+2
Answers (1)
  1. 19 March, 13:35
    0
    In my view, the Government could only withdraw private property from a citizen if there is a technically proven public benefit. For example, in the case of road construction or land reform.

    To accomplish this, the Government must comply with the requirements of the expropriation laws, supporting the public interest and guaranteeing individual rights.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Why should the government be able to take somebody's property without his or her consent? Give some examples of what you would view as ...” in 📘 Social Studies if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers