Ask Question
HistoryHistory
13 March, 05:35

Why did Britain interfere with colonial government in the mid 1700s

+4
Answers (1)
  1. 13 March, 09:04
    0
    The main reason why Britain interfered with colonial government in the mid 1700s is because they needed more revenue to pay for things like the French and Indian War--revenue they decided to collect in the form of taxes from the colonists.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Why did Britain interfere with colonial government in the mid 1700s ...” in 📘 History if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers
You Might be Interested in
Camels are called "Ships of the Desert" and "Atta Allah" (Gift of God). Why?
Answers (1)
California's desire for lumber was
Answers (1)
People looking for farm work during the Great Depression often moved to A.) the dust bowl B.) commercial farms C.) California D.) Oklahoma
Answers (2)
Which sectors of our society deals with scarcity
Answers (1)
Analyze and compare the differing responses of china and japan to western penetration in the 19th century (political, economic, and military)
Answers (1)
New Questions in History
What crops did Egyptians grow?
Answers (2)
Within the executive office of the president (eop, which is the main responsibility of the office of administration?
Answers (1)
How was the united states significantly changed as a result of world war ii? essay?
Answers (1)
What did europeans fail to consider when partitioning africa
Answers (1)
Which part of a map tells you the subject of a map
Answers (1)
Home » History » Why did Britain interfere with colonial government in the mid 1700s
Sign Up Forgot Password?