Why did Hitler originally sign a non-aggression pact with Poland?
1 He feared a Polish alliance with Britain.
2. He was concerned about a French-Polish alliance.
3. He thought the international community would respond with violence.
4. He was concerned about the American response.
5. He did not sign a non-aggression pact.
Answers (2)
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Why did Hitler originally sign a non-aggression pact with Poland? 1 He feared a Polish alliance with Britain. 2. He was concerned about a ...” in 📘 History if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers
You Might be Interested in
What major political philosophies have developed throughout history?
Answers (1)
What did the greeks believe was the most important difference between themselves and barbarians?
Answers (1)
How did president nixon react to the watergate investigation? a. he began taping conversations. b. he offered bribes to journalists. c. he acted to cover up crimes. d. he admitted to ordering a burglary?
Answers (1)
What economic and political conditions following world war l encouraged dictatorships?
Answers (1)
What were the conditions at Valley Forge?
Answers (1)
New Questions in History
What invention made it possible to work longer hours? Who invented it?
Answers (2)
Why did the south experience greater inflation than the north during the civil war?
Answers (1)
The North Atlantic treaty organization combined the military street had of
Answers (1)
Which of these occurred as a direct result of the US late 19th century industrialization
Answers (1)
What upset the sepoys during the British East India Company's rule of India? They were paid less than British soldiers. They were required to serve overseas. British tea was being imported into India.
Answers (1)