Ask Question
3 February, 06:28

Which of the following statements is the converse of the statement "If each of two angles has a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles are equal in measure"?

1. If each of two angles does not have a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles do not have equal measures.

2. If each of two angles does not have a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles have equal measures.

3. If two angles have equal measures, then the measure of each is 28 degrees.

4. If two angles do not have equal measures, then each of the two angles does not have a measure of 28 degrees.

+1
Answers (1)
  1. 3 February, 06:35
    0
    3. If two angles have equal measures, then the measure of each is 28 degrees

    Step-by-step explanation:

    For an implication if p then q, the converse is if q then p.

    Here, we have the clauses ...

    p = each of two angles has a measure of 28°

    q = the two angles are equal in measure

    So, the converse is written as ...

    If two angles are equal in measure, each has a measure of 28°.

    This statement most closely matches statement 3.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question ✅ “Which of the following statements is the converse of the statement "If each of two angles has a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles ...” in 📘 Mathematics if you're in doubt about the correctness of the answers or there's no answer, then try to use the smart search and find answers to the similar questions.
Search for Other Answers